Category Archives: QUIZ

Comparison between Nagara and Dravidian style of temple architecture

Consider the below statements with regard to Nagara and Dravidian Style of Temple Architecture: Images such as Mithunas and the river goddesses as door keepers guarding the temple are common sight in the Dravida style of temple architecture. The north Indian idea of multiple shikharas rising together as a cluster was not popular in dravida style. A large water reservoir

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Prelims 2134

Which of the following statements about ‘Sach-Gaurav’ is correct? A. It is an educational program of Ministry of Defence that aims to teach students about service to nation by joining the armed forces. B. It is awareness program run by Supreme Court of India for legal aid . C. It is the first cloned Assamese buffalo male calf, cloned by

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Prelims 4357

Which of the following statements about Nabakalebar festival is/are correct? 1. It is an ancient festival celebrated at the Jagannath Temple. 2. It is a quadrennial festival that is celebrated in the state of Odisha. 3. In this festival, the Idols of Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra and Sudarshan are replaced with new set of Idols. Choose the correct answer from

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Prelims 1234

Defence Research and Development Organisation has recently developed ‘Muntra’. Which refers to which of the following? A. An anti-missile tank B. A radar C. A surveillance system D. An unmanned tank. Explanation : Muntra is the unmanned tank, has three variants – surveillance, mine detection and reconnaissance in areas with nuclear and bio threats. It is likely to be used

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Prelims 2000

Tropic of Capricorn passes through which of the following countries?1. Peru2. Brazil3. South Africa4. AustraliaSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A.1, 2 and 3B.1, 2 and 4C.2, 3 and 4D.1, 3 and 4Explanation :The line passes through Chile, Argentina, Paraguay, Brazil, Namibia, Botswana,South Africa, Mozambique, Madagascar, Australia and French Polynesia, clipping New Caledonia, Fiji, Tonga and the Cook

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Prelims 326

Consider the following pairs: Committee Objective 1. Butler committee: to clarify the relationship between the British crown and the Princely states. 2. Hunter Committee: to involve more Indians in Civil Service 3. Hartog Committee: spreading English learning and female education in India Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C.

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Prelims 308

In medieval India, ‘muqaddams’ and ‘khuts’ are used in context of: A. Commercial agent B. Decrees issued by the King C. Military officers D. Village headmen and landlords Explanation : Muqaddams referred to village headmen and khuts were smaller landlord who enjoyed a high standard of life than ordinary peasants during Sultanate period

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Prelims 307

With reference to Chhau Dance, consider the following statements: 1. It is a dance practised mainly in Western India. 2. It is one of the performing-art forms on UNESCO’s intangible heritage list. 3. Steps and techniques of Pari-khanda, a form of martial art, are used in Chhau. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 3 only B. 1

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Prelims Polity 515

Consider the following statements regarding the Basic Structure of the Constitution: 1. It refers to features of the Constitution that even the Parliament cannot amend. 2. The Supreme Court has defined the Basic Structure of the Constitution in the Kesavananda Bharti judgement. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and

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Prelims Polity 514

Consider the following statements regarding the Second Schedule of the Constitution: 1. Second Schedule contains the Oaths or Affirmations for Ministers, MPs, Judges of SC and HCs etc. 2. It can be amended by simple majority of the Parliament. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither

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Prelims Polity 513

The office of Secretary of State for India, with complete authority and control over Indian administration, was created by: A. Charter Act of 1853 B. Government of India Act of 1858 C. Indian Councils Act of 1861 D. An executive order of the British Government Explanation : The office of Secretary of State for India, with complete authority and control

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Prelims 512

Consider the following statements regarding the Committees of Constituent Assembly: 1. States Committee (for negotiating with States) was headed by Sardar Patel. 2. The Minorities Sub-Committee was headed by Maulana Abul Kalam Azam. 3. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee was headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 2

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Prelims 511

Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1919: 1. It divided the central subjects into two parts – transferred and reserved. 2. The transferred central subjects were to be administered by the Governor while the reserved subjects were to be administered by the Viceroy of India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1

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Polity Prelims 510

With reference to the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, consider the following statements: 1. In the Scheduled areas, at least one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes. 2. The Gram Sabha shall be responsible for the coordination of planning and implementation of development projects in the

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Polity Prelims 509

With regard to the executive power relating to the concurrent subjects in seventh schedule, consider the following statements: 1. A law on concurrent subject is to be ordinarily enacted and executed by the Union. 2. A law to implement any international treaty on concurrent list is enacted by the Parliament but executed by the State. Which of the statements given

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Prelims Polity 508

Which of the following subjects come under the State list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution? 1. Education 2. Forests 3. Pilgrimage within India 4. Agriculture Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 3 and 4 only Explanation : Education and Forests were

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Prelims Polity 507

With reference to the urban local bodies, consider the following statements: 1. A nagar panchayat is established for an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area. 2. A cantonment board works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both

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Prelims 506

Which of the following signifies Federal spirit of the Indian Constitution? 1. Article 345 2. Article 370 3. Article 371-B 4. Seventh Schedule 5. Ninth Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 1, 4 and 5 D. 2, 3 and 5 Explanation : Art. 345:

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Prelims 505

Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha elections: 1. There is no model code of conduct for the elections of Rajya Sabha. 2. All the members of a state legislative assembly take part in voting. 3. All the states have equal representation in Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2

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Prelims 504

Consider the following subjects: 1. Water 2. Public Health and Sanitation 3. Land acquisition 4. Audit of the accounts of the states Which of the above subjects is/are included in the Union list? A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 4 C. 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation : Water is a state subject. Public health and

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Prelims 503

With reference to the North Eastern Council, consider the following statements: 1. It is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region. 2. It is a constitutional body. 3. Sikkim is a part of the council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2

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Prelims 502

With reference to urban local bodies, consider the following statements: 1. Municipalities are established in smaller towns and cities in states by the concerned state legislatures and in UTs by the act of Parliament. 2. Notified Area Committee is established by a notification in the government gazette. 3. Town Area Committee is created by a separate act of Parliament. Which

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Prelims 501

Match the following: List 1                                                      List 2 I. Japanese Constitution              1. Election of Rajya Sabha members J. Irish Constitution                        2. Rule of law K. British Constitution                  3. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha L. South Africa                                  4. Procedure established by law Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. I-1, J-2, K-3, L-4 B.

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Prelims 986

Which of the following factors led to the decline of handicraft industries in India? 1. The abolition of the monopoly of the East India Company 2. The introduction of railways 3. The gradual disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts 4. The emergence of English educated middle class A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and

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Prelims 985

With reference to the features of the Harrapan burial, beliefs and practices, consider the following statements: 1. Harappan people buried their bodies in North – South direction. 2. Bodies were laid in extended position. 3. Individuals were buried along with their jewellery. 4. They believed in the life after death. Which of these is/are correct? Select your answer from the

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Prelims 984

Which of the following scene is not portrayed in the prehistoric Rock-art at Bhimbetka? A. Fishing B. Harvesting C. Dancing D. Mouser trapping Explanation : Agriculture began in Neolithic period whereas these paintings belong mainly to the Upper Palaeolithic and Mesolithic periods.

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Prelims 983

The philosophical school of Nyaya is attributed to which of the following sage. A. Kapil B. Gautama C. Jamini D. Kanada Explanation : Nyaya, one of the six systems of Indian philosophy, important for its analysis of logic and epistemology. Nyāya school of Indian Philosophy was founded by Gotama who is also known as Aks̩apāda. This school’s most significant contributions

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Prelims 982

The red stone torso of a male, an important evidence of Harappan stone art, is reported from which of the following site. A. Harappa B. Lothal C. Mohenjo-Daro D. Kalibangan Explanation : The Male torso is a red sandstone figure. It is remarkable for its naturalistic pose and sophisticated modelling, highlighting its physical beauty. The head and arms of this

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Prelims 981

which of the following text contains the phrase “Atithi Devo Bhava”. A. Manusmriti B. Vishnu Puran C. Taittriya Upanisad D. Bhagavat Puran Explanation : Atithi Devo Bhavah is a Sanskrit verse which simply means – consider the guest as god. Athithi Devo Bhava, originates from the Taittirya Upanishad of the Yajur Veda. Recently it has also become the tag line

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PRELIM 980

The battle of Wandiwash (1760) was fought between A. Nizam of Hyderabad and the French B. English and the French C. English and Hyder Ali D. Nawab of Carnatic and the British Explanation : The Battle of Wandiwash was the decisive battle in the Anglo-French struggle in southern India during the Seven Years’ War (1756–63). The British forces under Sir

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Prelims 988

With reference to Ecological pyramids, consider the following statements: 1. Pyramid of numbers takes into account the size of organisms being counted. 2. In pyramid of Biomass, individuals at each trophic level are counted. 3. Pyramid of energy has large energy base at the top of pyramid. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 B.

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Prelims 989

Consider the following statements: 1. Bioaccumulation is the increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment in an organism. 2. Bio magnification is when a toxic chemical increases in amount each time it moves up a food chain. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

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Prelims 990

Consider the following statements on Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety: 1. The first Meeting of the Parties (MOP1) to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in Philippines. 2. India is a signatory to the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity. 3. The Biosafety Protocol deals with genetically modified organisms. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2

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Prelims 991

Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘bioremediation’? A. It is the enrichment of the nutrient quality of the soil using biological agents. B. It is the increase of organo-metallic compounds in the organism through energy flow in an ecosystem. C. It is the use of microorganisms to degrade the environmental contaminants into less toxic

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Prelims 992

Consider the following pairs: Diseases Pollutants 1. Minamata Disease : Mercury 2. Itai-Itai Disease : Nitrate 3. Blue Baby Syndrome : Cadmium 4. Black Foot Disease : Arsenic Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation :

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Prelims 993

Which of the following are non-point sources of pollution in rivers? 1. Surface drains carrying municipal sewage 2. Run-off from agricultural fields 3. Dhobi Ghats 4. Effluents from industries Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4 only Explanation :

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Prelims 994

Which of the following sources contribute to the formation of acid rains? 1. Volcanic eruptions 2. Thermal Power Plants 3. Burning of coal 4. Automobile exhaust Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation : Acid

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Prelim 995

Which of the following is/are criteria to define Biodiversity Hotspots? 1. It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics. 2. It must have lost at least 70 percent of its original habitat. 3. It must be home to at least 10 critically endangered species of animals. Select the correct answer from the code given below. A.

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Prelim 996

Which of the following National Parks are also designated as Marine Protected Areas? 1. Campbell Bay 2. Bhitarkanika 3. Sundarbans 4. Rani Jhansi 5. Saddle Peak Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1, 2 and 5 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and

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Prelim- 997

With reference to the term ‘Pesticide Treadmill’, consider the following statements: 1. It means increasing the doses of pesticides to prevent the resurgence of the earlier controlled pest. 2. It yields counterproductive results as repeated spraying increases the vulnerabilities of the farming communities to debt and poor health. 3. It involves targeted spraying on pests so that no other insects

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Prelim 998

With reference to Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA), consider the following statements? 1. The ratings have been developed jointly by TERI and Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. GRIHA rating is mandatory for establishment of any new industrial building. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2

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Prelim- 1000

Consider the following statements regarding Hope Spots: 1. These are special places that are critical to the health of the oceans. 2. These are declared by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 3. Lakshadweep Island in India is a hope spot. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and

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Quiz- 999

Consider the following statements regarding Hope Spots: 1. These are special places that are critical to the health of the oceans. 2. These are declared by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 3. Lakshadweep Island in India is a hope spot. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and

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Quiz

Vehicular Emission Norms under the Bharat Stage emission standards cover which of the following pollutants? 1. Carbon Monoxide (CO) 2. NOx 3. Particular Matter (PM) 4. Ozone 5. Hydrocarbon (HC) Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only D.

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PRELIMS-1

Consider the following statements: 1. Decomposition of dead material and formation of complex organic matter is called humification. 2. Break down of organic matter and subsequent release of nutrients into the soil is called mineralization. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None of these Explanation :

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Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): 1. It intends to recognize the knowledge acquired and skills equipped by the participants through certification. 2. Persons from both organized and unorganized sectors can join the scheme. 3. It is being implemented by National Skill Development Corporation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)

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National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)

. Consider the following statements about National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) 1.     It functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution 2.     It fixes/revises the prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations Select the correct statements a     1 Only b     2 Only c      Both 1 and 2 d     Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation:

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Q33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Tawarikh?

1. These are the “histories”, written in Persian language. 2. The authors of Tawarikh were learned men who were secretaries, administrators, poets and courtiers. 3. These authors advised rulers on the need to preserve an “ideal” social order based on birth right and gender distinctions. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B.

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Quiz-Q31. With reference to the features of a perfectly competitive market, consider the following statements:

Q31. With reference to the features of a perfectly competitive market, consider the following statements: 1. All firms in the market produce certain heterogeneous goods/services. 2. In such a market buyers must accept the prevailing prices but the sellers have the freedom to influence the prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only

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Quiz- Q26. Which of the following statements regarding Mughal Architecture is/are correct?

Q26. Which of the following statements regarding Mughal Architecture is/are correct? 1. The Chahar Bagh system in the Mughal Architecture was first introduced by Babur in India. 2. The Pishtaq or Central Towering Dome became one of the most important aspects of Mughal Architecture. 3. Humayun’s Tomb was built in the tradition known as ‘HashtBihisht’. Select the correct answer using

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Q21. Which of the following embellishments have been used for the interior and exterior surfaces of Taj Mahal?

Q21. Which of the following embellishments have been used for the interior and exterior surfaces of Taj Mahal? 1. Stone carvings in high and low relief on the walls. 2. Delicate carving of marble into jalis and graceful volute 3. Creation of arabesques with pietra dura 4. Art of calligraphy with the inlay of jasper to write Quranic verses. Select

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Quiz-Q24- Asserssion and Reasoning Question

Paragraph: DIRECTIONS for Question No. 24: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled ‘Assertion’ (A) and the other labelled ‘Reason’ (R). Examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion and the Reason are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer using the code given below:

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Quiz- Q4. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of Species?

Q4. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of Species? A. The assemblage of the population of plants, animals, bacteria and fungi that live in an area and interact with each other. B. A community of animals and plants inhabiting a particular area. C. Similar organisms having the potential for interbreeding and producing fertile offspring. D. Group of

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Quiz- Q5. The Indian Constitution provides certain fundamental rights only to citizens whereas certain fundamental rights are provided to citizens as well as foreigners. In this regard, which of the following fundamental rights are available to both citizens and foreigners?

Q5. The Indian Constitution provides certain fundamental rights only to citizens whereas certain fundamental rights are provided to citizens as well as foreigners. In this regard, which of the following fundamental rights are available to both citizens and foreigners? 1. Article 20 2. Article 21A 3. Article 19 4. Article 22 5. Article 25 Select the correct answer using the

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Quiz- Q11-12 Which of the following is not one of the reason for the existence of informal sector in a developing country?

Q11. Which of the following is not one of the reason for the existence of informal sector in a developing country? A. Tertiary economies in the formal sector are not developed well enough to absorb all the economies of the informal sector. B. The quality of products and the quality of work in the informal sector are low. C. Informal-sector

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Q13. Which of the following were the main causes responsible for the Battle of Buxar?

Q13. Which of the following were the main causes responsible for the Battle of Buxar? 1. Illegitimate utilization of dastak for unaccounted profits. 2. Fortification of factories at Calcutta by East India Company. 3. Abolition of all duties on internal trade by Nawab Mir Qasim. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B.

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Quiz-Q6. When a constitutional amendment aims to modify an article related to the distribution of powers between the States and the Union government, then which of the following type of majority is required to amend the Constitution?

Q6. When a constitutional amendment aims to modify an article related to the distribution of powers between the States and the Union government, then which of the following type of majority is required to amend the Constitution? A. Simple majority in the Parliament with ratification by not less than half of the States. B. Special majority in the Parliament with

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Quiz- Q9. Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity hotspot:

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity hotspot: 1. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region that is both threatened with destruction and is a significant reservoir of biodiversity. 2. The German biologist Ernst Haeckel coined the term “biodiversity hotspot”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D.

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Quiz- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the literary work Akbar Nama:

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the literary work Akbar Nama: 1. Ain-i-Akbari was written by Abul Fazl as part of Akbar Nama. 2. The first and third parts of Akbar Nama provide a historical narrative like birth of Akbar, the history of Timur’s family and the reigns of Babur and Humayun and the Suri Sultans of Delhi. 3. Ain-i

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Quiz- Q16. Epidermis on the aerial parts of the plant often secretes a waxy layer to protect against:

Q16. Epidermis on the aerial parts of the plant often secretes a waxy layer to protect against: A. Loss of water B. Mechanical injury C. Invasion by parasitic fungi D. All of the above Answer: D Exp: The outermost layer of cells is known as epidermis. The epidermis is usually made of a single layer of cells. In some plants

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Quiz- Q15. The summation of the value of final goods and services produced in each sector of an economy during a particular year is:

Q15. The summation of the value of final goods and services produced in each sector of an economy during a particular year is: A. Net Domestic Product B. Gross National Product C. National Income D. Gross Domestic Product Answer: D Exp: The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production

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Q14. In the Stupas of Mauryan period many inscriptional evidences are found. Which of the following was/were inscribed in those Stupas?

Quiz- Q14. In the Stupas of Mauryan period many inscriptional evidences are found. Which of the following was/were inscribed in those Stupas? 1. Name and profession of donors 2. Donations by the guilds 3. Name of the artisans Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 1,

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Prelims QUIZ

Q11. Which among the following statements is/are correct? 1. The East India Company obtained Bombay from the king of England, Charles II. 2. The factory of Bombay was the first factory on the Western Coast, which the EIC had established. 3. The Mughal Emperor Jahangir (1605-27) gave permission to the EIC to establish their first factory in South India, which the

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